Name: 
 

Final Practice Test



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

1. 

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the stars of the disk component of our galaxy?
a.
circular orbits
b.
randomly inclined orbits
c.
higher metal abundance
d.
young stars
e.
star formation regions
 

2. 

Younger stars have more heavy elements because
a.
old stars destroy heavy elements as they age.
b.
young stars burn their nuclear fuels faster.
c.
the heavy elements were made in previous generations of stars.
d.
heavy elements haven't had time to settle to the core of these younger stars.
e.
all of these
 

3. 

The first stars to form in our galaxy
a.
had circular orbits.
b.
had highly elliptical orbits.
c.
were population I stars.
d.
all had orbits in the same plane.
e.
formed the galactic clusters we see today.
 

4. 

Good spiral tracers are all

I.
very old.
II.
very young.
III.
very luminous.
IV.
moving with large radial velocities.
a.
I & III
b.
I & IV
c.
II & III
d.
II & IV
e.
I, III, & IV
 

5. 

Radio maps of our galaxy show spiral arms because
a.
the arms have larger Doppler shifts.
b.
the gas in the spiral arms is very hot.
c.
the dust in spiral arms is denser.
d.
the gas in spiral arms is denser.
e.
the stars in the spiral arms emit most of their energy at radio wavelengths.
 

6. 

Population II stars

I.
are primarily found in the disk of the galaxy.
II.
contain more heavy metals than population I stars.
III.
are primarily old low mass stars.
IV.
are located in globular clusters.
a.
III & IV
b.
I & II
c.
II
d.
IV
e.
I, II, & III
 

7. 

The chemical abundance of population I stars
a.
indicates that they were formed before the population II stars.
b.
indicates that the material they formed from had been enriched with material from supernovae.
c.
indicates that they contain very few heavy metals compared to halo stars.
d.
depends on the temperature of the star.
e.
depends on the mass of the star.
 

8. 

The center of our galaxy lies in the direction of the constellation of
a.
Ursa Minor.
b.
Ursa Major.
c.
Sagittarius.
d.
Orion.
e.
Monoceros.
 

9. 

The nuclear bulge of our galaxy
a.
contains stars that are primarily population I stars.
b.
contains relatively large amounts of gas and dust.
c.
contains stars primarily associated with the spherical component of our galaxy.
d.
contains stars primarily associated with the disk component of our galaxy.
e.
a, b and d
 

10. 

The orbits of population I stars

I.
are confined to disk of the galaxy.
II.
are very elliptical.
III.
are nearly circular.
IV.
are randomly inclined to the disk of the galaxy.
a.
I
b.
IV
c.
I & IV
d.
II & IV
e.
I & III
 

11. 

Radio maps of the spiral arms of our galaxy
a.
reveal that our galaxy is a grand design spiral.
b.
map the location of Hot O and B stars by the radio radiation they emit.
c.
reveal that the spiral arms are winding up and growing closer together.
d.
reveal that the sun is currently located in the center of a spiral arm.
e.
map the location of dense neutral hydrogen clouds.
 

12. 

Sgr A* is believed to be the center of the Milky Way galaxy because

I.
It lies in the general direction of the center of the galaxy based on observations of globular clusters.
II.
It is located near the galactic corona.
III.
It is easily visible with optical telescopes and has the appearance of a massive black hole.
IV.
It does not move with respect to the rest of the galaxy.
a.
I & II
b.
II & III
c.
I & IV
d.
II & IV
e.
I, III, & IV
 

13. 

A Type I Cepheid has been located in an open cluster. The period of the Cepheid variable is 30 days and the variables apparent visual magnitude is 10. What is the distance to this open cluster?

studyguide12-20_files/i0140000.jpg
a.
100 pc
b.
10,000 pc
c.
20 pc
d.
300 pc
e.
2500 pc
 

14. 

An E galaxy contains
a.
mostly lower-main sequence stars and giants.
b.
mostly upper main sequence stars and giants.
c.
mostly upper main sequence stars and gas and dust.
d.
roughly equal numbers of upper and lower main sequence stars.
e.
mostly white dwarfs and supergiants.
 

15. 

An irregular galaxy contains
a.
mostly lower-main sequence stars and giants.
b.
mostly upper main sequence stars and giants.
c.
mostly upper main sequence stars and gas and dust.
d.
mostly upper and lower main sequence stars and gas and dust.
e.
mostly white dwarfs and supergiants.
 

16. 

The look-back time is
a.
how long the light from an object takes to reach Earth.
b.
numerically equal to the distance in light-years.
c.
smaller for more distant objects.
d.
all of the above
e.
a and b above
 

17. 

Astronomers now speculate that a galaxy's shape depends on all of the following except
a.
the rate of star formation.
b.
the history of past collisions.
c.
the mass.
d.
the chemical composition.
e.
All of these are important in determining a galaxy's shape.
 

18. 

We should expect galaxies to collide fairly often because
a.
they are large with respect to their separation distances.
b.
galaxies contain large amounts of neutral hydrogen.
c.
galaxies occur in clusters.
d.
a and c
e.
none of the above
 

19. 

A tuning fork diagram is shown below. Which of the labeled figures represents an SBa galaxy?

studyguide12-20_files/i0200000.jpg
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
e.
5
 

20. 

A tuning fork diagram is shown below. Which of the labeled figures represents an Sc galaxy?

studyguide12-20_files/i0210000.jpg
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
e.
5
 

21. 

A tuning fork diagram is shown below. Which of the labeled figures represents an SBc galaxy?

studyguide12-20_files/i0220000.jpg
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
e.
5
 

22. 

A tuning fork diagram is shown below. Which of the labeled figures represents an E0 galaxy?

studyguide12-20_files/i0230000.jpg
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
e.
5
 

23. 

_________ galaxies contain large clouds of gas and dust, both young and old stars, but have no obvious spiral arms or nucleus.
a.
Irregular
b.
S0
c.
E7
d.
Sa
e.
E0
 

24. 

The dark matter in galaxies has been hypothesized to be composed of
a.
neutral hydrogen clouds.
b.
red dwarfs.
c.
weakly interacting massive particles.
d.
H II regions.
e.
all of the above.
 

25. 

Observations of galaxies and clusters of galaxies indicate that about _________ per cent of the universe is dark matter.
a.
5
b.
25
c.
50
d.
75
e.
95
 

26. 

Starburst galaxies
a.
contain a large number of very young stars, but very little evidence of gas clouds.
b.
contain a large number of very old stars and almost no gas or dust.
c.
are often associated with a galaxy that is colliding with another galaxy.
d.
are common in rich clusters.
e.
are composed of filaments and voids.
 

27. 

An elliptical galaxy could
a.
evolve into an irregular galaxy when it has used up all of its gas and dust.
b.
be formed from the collision and merger of spiral galaxies.
c.
evolve from a single spiral galaxy when the spiral has used up all of its gas and dust.
d.
become a starburst galaxy if it were to move through the hot intergalactic medium of a cluster.
e.
evolve from an S0 galaxy if the S0 galaxy were to increase its rotation rate.
 

28. 

If a galaxy has a radial velocity of 8000 km/sec and the Hubble constant is 70 km/sec/Mpc, what is the distance to this galaxy?
a.
8.75 x 103 Mpc
b.
2.4 x 109 Mpc
c.
5.6 x 105 Mpc
d.
114 Mpc
e.
8.75 x 10-3 Mpc
 

29. 

If the absolute magnitude of a supernova is -19 and a galaxy is found that contains a supernova with an apparent magnitude of 16, what is the distance to the galaxy?
a.
100 AU
b.
100 pc
c.
100 ly
d.
100 kpc
e.
100 Mpc
 

30. 

The radio lobes that flank some radio galaxies produce mainly
a.
21-cm radiation.
b.
synchrotron radiation.
c.
black body radiation.
d.
emission lies due to hydrogen.
e.
absorption lines due to hydrogen.
 

31. 

Centaurus A is a radio galaxy that has a galaxy at the center. This central galaxy of Centaurus A contains an elliptical galaxy encircled by a ring of dust. The elliptical galaxy rotates about an axis that is in the plane of the dust ring. The dust ring rotates about an axis that is perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the elliptical galaxy. What does this suggest about this central galaxy of Centaurus A?
a.
The radio jets have caused the dust disk to be driven around the elliptical galaxy.
b.
There are at least two black holes at the center of the elliptical galaxy.
c.
Centaurus A is probably the result of a merger of an elliptical galaxy and a spiral galaxy.
d.
Dust is produced as the jets interact with the intergalactic medium.
e.
Elliptical galaxies often contain dust that forms a disk along their rotation axis.
 

32. 

If the red shifts of quasars arise from the expansion of the universe,
a.
a quasar must be very small.
b.
a quasar must be within the Local Group.
c.
a quasar must be single star with an extremely large mass.
d.
a quasar must be moving toward Earth with a large radial velocity.
e.
a quasar must be very luminous.
 

33. 

We suspect that quasars are the active centers of galaxies because
a.
quasar fuzz produces stellar spectra.
b.
a few quasars have large red shifts.
c.
some quasars fluctuate rapidly.
d.
all of the above.
e.
none of the above
 

34. 

The discovery of the gravitational lens effect for quasars
a.
shows that quasars were located within the local group of galaxies.
b.
shows that quasars were giant elliptical galaxies at very great distances.
c.
shows that quasars are much further away than the distant galaxy that forms the gravitational lens.
d.
proves Newton's theory of gravitation by showing that the photon was affected by gravity.
e.
proves the existence of super massive black holes at the center of active galactic nuclei.
 

35. 

Statistical evidence
a.
can be used to draw conclusions about a specific cases.
b.
is applicable to classes of objects where only a few objects from the class have been studied.
c.
allows scientists to determine the mechanism that produces the dust ring in Centaurus A.
d.
allows scientists to deduce general characteristics about a class of objects with similar properties.
e.
provides insight into the behavior of an individual object based on careful observations of it.
 

36. 

Evidence that supports quasars being the nuclei of very distant galaxies includes
a.
the existence of quasar fuzz.
b.
the observation of a supernova near a quasar and at the same distance.
c.
gravitational lensing of some quasars by nearby galaxies.
d.
all of the above
e.
none of the above
 

37. 

A BL Lac object is the same as a
a.
Type 1 Seyfert.
b.
Type 2 Seyfert.
c.
double-lobed radio galaxy.
d.
blazar.
e.
quasar.
 

38. 

_________ is (are) observed when light from a distant quasar travels past a massive galaxy between us and the quasar, and this light is focused to form two or more images of the same quasar.
a.
A double-lobed radio galaxy
b.
Superluminal expansion
c.
The gravitational lens effect
d.
A blazar
e.
Gravitational waves
 

39. 

Seyfert galaxies
a.
are more common in close pairs of galaxies than in isolated systems.
b.
emit more energy at x-ray, ultraviolet, infrared, or radio wavelengths than normal spiral galaxies.
c.
generally show red shifts greater than 1.
d.
a and b
e.
a, b and c
 

40. 

The assumption of universality states that
a.
the universe looks the same at all epochs.
b.
the universe looks the same from all locations over sufficiently great distances.
c.
the universe looks the same in all directions over sufficiently great distances.
d.
the physical laws we observe on Earth apply everywhere in the universe.
e.
all of the above
 

41. 

The assumption of isotropy states that
a.
the universe looks the same at all epochs.
b.
the universe looks the same from all locations over sufficiently great distances.
c.
the universe looks the same in all directions over sufficiently great distances.
d.
all of the above
e.
none of the above.
 

42. 

The assumption of homogeneity states that
a.
the universe looks the same at all epochs.
b.
the universe looks the same from all locations over sufficiently great distances.
c.
the universe looks the same in all directions over sufficiently great distances.
d.
all of the above
e.
none of the above.
 

43. 

During the first moments of the big bang, nuclear fusion reactions made few heavy elements because
a.
all heavy nuclei are unstable.
b.
no stable nuclei exist with masses of 5 or 8 hydrogen masses.
c.
the helium nucleus is unstable.
d.
the temperature and density were too low.
e.
no nuclei heavier than helium could form since there weren't any electrons formed.
 

44. 

If galaxy A is four times more distant than galaxy B, then according to the Hubble Law, galaxy A will recede ___________ than galaxy B.
a.
16 times faster
b.
4 times faster
c.
2 times faster
d.
1.2 times faster
e.
0.25 times faster
 

45. 

The universe is said to be closed if

I.
gravity is strong enough to stop the expansion in a finite time.
II.
the density of the universe is less than the critical density.
III.
the universe is finite.
a.
I & II
b.
I & III
c.
II & III
d.
I, I, & III
e.
none of the above
 

46. 

If the universe is closed, then its age will be
a.
less than two-thirds of 1/H.
b.
more than two-thirds of 1/H.
c.
equal to 1/H
d.
equal to H squared.
e.
equal to the square-root of H.
 

47. 

If the universe is closed and finite, then
a.
the universe has a center and an edge.
b.
the universe will expand forever.
c.
the final fate of the universe will be very cold and of extremely low density.
d.
the space-time of the universe is negatively curved
e.
none of the above
 

48. 

_________ cause a sudden brightening of distant stars by gravitationally lensing the light from those stars. This processes causes the distant stars to grow brighter over a period of a few tens of days.
a.
WIMPs
b.
neutrinos
c.
globular clusters
d.
MACHOs
e.
none of the above
 

49. 

Measured ages of globular clusters and a study of the time required for massive stars to build up the present abundance of heavy elements suggests that the universe is
a.
no more than 20 billion years old.
b.
no more than 10 billion years old
c.
at least 14 billion years old
d.
flat
e.
closed
 

50. 

If the universe is flat
a.
its age will be equal to 1/H.
b.
its age will be equal two-thirds of 1/H.
c.
the density of the universe is less than the critical density.
d.
the density of the universe is greater than the critical density.
e.
dark matter accounts for a small fraction of the density of the universe.
 

51. 

The flatness problem and horizon problem
a.
are solved if there was a sudden inflation of the universe at time before recombination occurred.
b.
show that the universe cannot be described by the steady state theory.
c.
show that dark matter must be a small fraction of the total mass of the universe.
d.
imply that the universe was once much hotter than it is now.
e.
imply that the inflationary theory is incorrect.
 

52. 

Galaxy seeds around which galaxies, clusters and walls grew may have been
a.
caused by hot dark matter.
b.
caused by baryons.
c.
the result of the separation of the electromagnetic and weak forces.
d.
the result of freezing water molecules shortly after the universe became transparent to photons.
e.
caused by defects in space-time.
 

53. 

If a two dimensional universe has a negative curvature
a.
the area of a circle will be greater than ðr2.
b.
the area of a circle will be equal to ðr2.
c.
the universe is infinite.
d.
the universe is finite but bounded
e.
the universe will have a center
 

54. 

Whether the universe is open, closed or flat depends on the ________ of the universe.
a.
luminosity
b.
density
c.
temperature
d.
radius
e.
rotation rate
 

55. 

The age of the universe can be determined if
a.
the universe is flat.
b.
the amount of dark matter in the universe can be accurately determined.
c.
the rate of recession of the galaxies in the Local Group can be accurately determined.
d.
the temperature of the cosmic background radiation can be accurately determined.
e.
the Hubble constant and density of the universe can be accurately determined.
 

56. 

If a galaxy is located at a distance of 18 Mpc and it is found to have recessional velocity of 1170 km/sec, what is Hubble's constant based only on this galaxy?
a.
65 km/sec
b.
75 km/sec
c.
55 km/sec
d.
85 km/sec
e.
95 km/sec
 

57. 

The oldest rocks found on Earth are about _________ years old.
a.
10 billion
b.
5.3 billion
c.
4.6 billion
d.
3.9 billion
e.
6.2 million
 

58. 

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the terrestrial planets?
a.
low average density
b.
orbits inside the asteroids
c.
craters in old surfaces
d.
small diameters
e.
very few satellites
 

59. 

A future news release might report that a new planet has been found around a star very similar to our sun. This newly discovered planet is claimed to have a mass 40 times that of Earth and is located nearly 25 AU from the star it orbits. Which of the following would be a reasonable prediction about this planet?

I.
The planet will probably have a mean density of around 5 g/cm3.
II.
The planet will probably have a radius of around five to ten times greater than Earth's.
III.
The planet will probably have several satellites.
IV.
The planet will probably have a composition that is mostly hydrogen and helium.
a.
I & IV
b.
I, II, & III
c.
II, III, & IV
d.
I, II, & IV
e.
I, II, III, & IV
 

60. 

A(n) _________ is a solar system object that enters Earth's atmosphere and becomes very hot due to friction between the object and Earth's atmosphere.
a.
asteroid
b.
meteor
c.
comet
d.
meteoroid
e.
planetesimal
 

61. 

The age of the solar system is believed to be approximately 4.6 billions years based on the data from
a.
samples of lunar rocks.
b.
samples of Earth rocks.
c.
samples of meteorites.
d.
all of the above
e.
none of the above.
 

62. 

Once a terrestrial planet had formed from a large number of planetesimals, heat from _________ could have melted it and allowed it to differentiate into a dense metallic core and a lower density crust.
a.
radioactive decay
b.
the sun
c.
volcanic eruptions
d.
tidal forces
e.
impacts of small meteorites
 

63. 

The condensation sequence suggests that _________ should condense closest to the sun.
a.
Jovian planets
b.
metals and metal oxides
c.
silicates
d.
ices of water, methane, and ammonia
e.
low density materials
 

64. 

Protoplanets of the Jovian planets could have grown very hot from
a.
heat for the sun.
b.
radioactivity of light elements such as hydrogen and helium.
c.
the in fall of material at high velocity.
d.
tidal forces due to the sun.
e.
collisions with large planetesimals.
 

65. 

If the terrestrial planets formed by homogeneous accretion, then
a.
they formed an iron core first, and a silicate crust later.
b.
the solar nebula changed during their fragmentation.
c.
Earth's original atmosphere was rich in hydrogen.
d.
the terrestrial planets should now have the same composition as the Jovian planets.
e.
the terrestrials should have had several satellites each.
 

66. 

The planets all lie in nearly the same plane resulting in a disk like structure for the solar system. This disk like structure is believed to exist because
a.
the original solar nebulae had a disk-like structure.
b.
the bipolar flow from the young sun cleared all material out of the nebula except that in the disk.
c.
Jupiter's gravity was great enough to pull all of the other planets to the plane of its orbit.
d.
planetesimals settled into the plane.
e.
the sun's magnetic field slowed down the rotation of the solar nebula.
 

67. 

Which one of the following objects is most like the planetesimals that formed in the solar nebular?
a.
asteroids
b.
Earth
c.
Saturn
d.
Venus
e.
the sun
 

68. 

The large planetesimals would have grown faster than the smaller planetesimals because
a.
they were moving faster in their orbits than the smaller planetesimals.
b.
their stronger gravity would pull in more material.
c.
there was more material located near them that could be accreted.
d.
the smaller planetesimals were covered by a layer of material that was lost during collisions.
e.
all of the above
 

69. 

Accretion among the grains in the solar nebula would have been aided by
a.
static electricity.
b.
gravity.
c.
high-velocity collisions
d.
all of the above
e.
none of the above
 

70. 

Based on current observations, _________ has a heavy element core, and a very dense, deep atmosphere made mostly of hydrogen.
a.
Uranus
b.
Jupiter
c.
Venus
d.
an asteroid
e.
a meteor
 

71. 

If a star is found with five planets orbiting it, which of the planets would be expected to have the greatest uncompressed density if the system was formed by a process like that described in the solar nebula theory?
a.
The one farthest from the star.
b.
The one with the greatest mass.
c.
The one with the greatest radius.
d.
The one closest to the star.
e.
The one that has liquid water on its surface.
 

72. 

The most important effect in clearing the solar nebula of gas and dust was
a.
impacts by planetesimals.
b.
the solar wind.
c.
the sun's magnetic field.
d.
the asteroid belt.
e.
radiation pressure.
 

73. 

The uncompressed mass of a planet in our solar system
a.
is greatest for the Jovian planets.
b.
is greatest for the planets closest to the sun.
c.
is greatest for the planets furthest from the sun.
d.
is greatest for the planets with the largest mass.
e.
is greatest of the planet with the largest radius.
 

74. 

On a photograph of the moon, the moon measures 30 cm in diameter and a small crater measures 0.2 cm. The moon's physical diameter is 1738 km, what is the physical diameter of the small crater?
a.
about 1738 km
b.
about 12 km
c.
about 520 km
d.
about 350 km
e.
about 3.5 km
 

75. 

The speed of the solar wind is approximately 400 km/s and the distance from the sun to Saturn is 9.5 AU (1 AU = 1.5 x 108 km). How long does it take a particle in the solar wind to reach Saturn?
a.
about 4.1 hours
b.
about 4.1 days
c.
about 41 days
d.
about 4.1 years
e.
about 41 years
 

76. 

That Earth _________ is evidence that Earth differentiated.
a.
rotates slowly
b.
has an average density that is lower than the density of the crust
c.
has a magnetic field
d.
has a surface that is 75% water
e.
all of these
 

77. 

The central regions of Earth's core are a solid because
a.
the composition at the center of the core is lower in iron.
b.
the pressure at the center raises the melting point.
c.
the magnetic field cannot penetrate into the center of the core.
d.
convection does not extend all the way to the center of the core.
e.
Earth initially formed from solid particles in the solar nebula.
 

78. 

Earth's magnetic field is generated by the dynamo effect in the
a.
molten metallic core.
b.
solid central core.
c.
plastic mantle.
d.
the crust.
e.
aurora.
 

79. 

The youngest parts of Earth's crust are
a.
the bottom layer found in the walls of the Grand Canyon.
b.
the continents.
c.
the continental margins.
d.
the Appalachian Mountains.
e.
the midocean rifts.
 

80. 

Which of the following is not produced by plate tectonics?
a.
midocean rifts
b.
rift valleys
c.
the ring of fire
d.
the Appalachian Mountains
e.
Earth's magnetic field
 

81. 

The oxygen in Earth's atmosphere
a.
was manufactured inside stars.
b.
was added to the atmosphere by plant life.
c.
has grown more abundant since the origin of Earth.
d.
all of these
e.
none of these
 

82. 

The gas that is most responsible for the greenhouse effect on Earth is
a.
oxygen (O2)
b.
nitrogen (N2)
c.
carbon dioxide (CO2)
d.
ozone (O3)
e.
ammonia (NH3)
 

83. 

Earth possesses few visible craters and the moon possesses many. This is because
a.
Earth formed later than the moon and, therefore hasn't encountered as many meteoroids.
b.
the moon doesn't have an atmosphere that could burn up many of the meteorites before impacting.
c.
erosion and plate tectonics have slowly removed evidence of past cratering on Earth.
d.
all of the above
e.
only b and c
 

84. 

The ozone layer is
a.
transparent to ultraviolet radiation.
b.
opaque to ultraviolet radiation.
c.
opaque to visible light.
d.
opaque to infrared radiation.
e.
responsible for producing most of the oxygen that animal life needs.
 

85. 

In the development of a planet, the stage of _____________ occurred when molten rock flowed through fissures and filled deep basins.
a.
differentiation
b.
cratering
c.
glaciation
d.
accretion
e.
flooding
 

86. 

Slow surface evolution is caused by
a.
wind erosion.
b.
plate tectonics.
c.
cratering.
d.
all of the above
e.
a and b
 

87. 

The energy that moves the plates of Earth's crust comes from
a.
the solar wind.
b.
convection from the hot interior.
c.
tides in the oceans.
d.
friction between wind and the land surface.
e.
Earth's magnetic field.
 

88. 

The graph below indicates the temperature of Earth's atmosphere as a function of altitude. At what altitude is Earth's atmosphere the coldest?

studyguide12-20_files/i0890000.jpg
a.
100 km
b.
130 km
c.
0 km
d.
150 km
e.
350 km
 

89. 

Why would a decrease in the density of the ozone layer create a public health concern?
a.
The greenhouse effect would not be as efficient and the temperature of Earth would decrease.
b.
The greenhouse effect would be more efficient and the temperature of Earth would increase.
c.
Plant life would no longer have the ozone it needs for photosynthesis to create chlorophyll.
d.
Infrared radiation from the sun would bombard Earth.
e.
none of the above
 

90. 

The lunar maria are
a.
the lava plains of the lunar lowlands.
b.
the smooth plateaus of the lunar highlands.
c.
less than one billion years old.
d.
moving plates of lunar crust.
e.
older than the lunar highlands.
 

91. 

The fission theory of the moon's origin has been criticized because
a.
the moon is more spherical than Earth.
b.
the moon's composition is different from Earth's.
c.
the tidal forces are making the moon approach Earth.
d.
it requires too many coincidences for it to occur.
e.
the moon has a large iron-nickel core.
 

92. 

The theory that Mercury shrank slightly when it was young has been proposed to explain
a.
extended lava plains.
b.
large craters.
c.
magnetic field.
d.
lobate scarps.
e.
regolith.
 

93. 

Which hypothesis concerning the formation of the moon makes predictions that best fit the observed lunar data?
a.
The large impact hypothesis
b.
The fission hypothesis
c.
The capture hypothesis
d.
The condensation hypothesis
e.
The regolith hypothesis
 

94. 

The condensation hypothesis for the formation of the moon suggests that the moon and Earth formed as a double planet from the same cloud within the solar nebula. This hypothesis predicts that
a.
the moon and Earth should have nearly the same mass and radius.
b.
the surfaces of the moon and Earth should be very similar and show evidence of plate tectonics.
c.
the moon and Earth should have identical compositions and densities.
d.
all of the above
e.
a and c
 

95. 

That the moon has no magnetic field implies that
a.
the moon is spinning to slowly to produce a magnetic field.
b.
the interior of the moon is too hot to produce a magnetic field.
c.
the crust of the moon is so thick that the magnetic field can not get out of the interior
d.
the moon's core contains little if any molten iron.
e.
the moon is moving further from Earth.
 

96. 

Which of the following are not found on Venus?
a.
arachnoids
b.
coronae
c.
rolling plains
d.
lobate scarps
e.
high atmospheric pressure
 

97. 

The geology of Venus appears to be dominated by
a.
volcanism.
b.
plate tectonics.
c.
erosion by flowing water.
d.
impact cratering.
e.
strip mining.
 

98. 

The surface of Venus has been studied
a.
using radar maps made from Earth.
b.
using radar maps made from satellites orbiting Venus.
c.
using spacecraft that have landed on the surface of Venus.
d.
all of the above
e.
only b and c.
 

99. 

Measurements of the magnetic field of Venus reveal that the
a.
planet has a large iron core.
b.
interior of the planet is molten.
c.
planet has no detectable magnetic field.
d.
planet rotates backwards.
e.
magnetic field is responsible for large auroral displays (northern lights) on Venus.
 

100. 

The flow patterns found on the surface of Mars suggest
a.
that Mars is a water-rich world.
b.
that the climate on Mars was different in the past.
c.
that volcanism is occurring on Mars.
d.
that the polar caps are made of water.
e.
all of the above
 

101. 

Which of the following supports the contention that the Martian crust is not divided into moving plates like those on Earth?

I.
the size of Olympus Mons
II.
the lack of folded mountain chains
III.
the lack of rift valleys outlining entire plates
IV.
the presence of dry river beds and sea floors
a.
I & II
b.
II & III
c.
II, III & IV
d.
I, II, & III
e.
I, II, III, & IV
 

102. 

Coronae on Venus are believed to be
a.
impact craters.
b.
caused by rising convection currents in the interior of Venus.
c.
the result of plate tectonics.
d.
located only in the polar regions of Venus.
e.
much older than the highlands such as Ishtar Terra.
 

103. 

The graph below plots the escape velocity of each planet along the vertical axis and its surface temperature along the horizontal. The lines plotted in the figure are the average speeds of gas particles as a function of temperature for various gases. Which of the gases plotted in the diagram could be retained in the atmosphere of Mars?

studyguide12-20_files/i1040000.jpg
a.
only CO2
b.
only NH3
c.
CO2, NH3, and O2
d.
only H2
e.
H2 and He
 

104. 

The moons of Mars are believed to be
a.
composed primarily iron and nickel.
b.
composed primarily of frozen gases of water and carbon dioxide.
c.
orbiting Mars in a direction opposite to the direction that Mars rotates.
d.
formed from material ejected from Olympus Mons and other large volcanoes on Mars.
e.
captured asteroids.
 

105. 

_________ is a very long and deep canyon on Mars.
a.
Valles Marineris
b.
Ishtar Terra
c.
Tharsis Bulge
d.
Lobate Scarp
e.
Phobos
 

106. 

Most terrestrial planets have portions of their surface that appear to be significantly older than other portions of their surface. What evidence suggests that the surface of Venus is all of the same age?
a.
Photos taken by probes that landed on Venus showed that all of the rocks were of the same age.
b.
The craters on Venus are randomly distributed in size and number across the surface.
c.
The volcanoes on Venus are not found in isolated groups, but are scattered around the planet.
d.
a and b
e.
all of the above
 

107. 

Saturn's atmosphere is
a.
more brightly marked than Jupiter's.
b.
rich in free oxygen.
c.
hazy above the clouds.
d.
all of the above
e.
none of the above
 

108. 

Saturn's rings are
a.
composed of ice particles.
b.
in the plane of the planet's equator.
c.
within the planet's Roche limit.
d.
all of the above
e.
none of the above
 

109. 

Though Titan is small, it is able to retain an atmosphere because
a.
it is very cold.
b.
it is very dense.
c.
it rotates very slowly.
d.
it attracts gas from the solar wind.
e.
it has a very strong magnetic field.
 

110. 

_________ in Saturn's rings is/are produced by the gravitational interaction of Mimas with the particles in the rings and appears as a large gap in the rings.
a.
Spokes
b.
Spiral density waves
c.
Bending waves
d.
The Io torus
e.
Cassini's division
 

111. 

Which of the Galilean satellites are geologically active?
a.
Io and Callisto
b.
Ganymede and Titan
c.
Titan and Callisto
d.
Europa and Io
e.
Ganymede and Callisto
 

112. 

Which of the following objects may have organic particles on its surface as a result of the interaction of sunlight with methane in its upper atmosphere.
a.
Io
b.
Titan
c.
Hyperion
d.
Ganymede
e.
Metis
 

113. 

In what way is the rocky material of Jupiter's core different from the rocks found on Earth?
a.
It is much cooler because Jupiter is further from the sun.
b.
It contains more liquid water.
c.
It is much hotter and more dense because of the extreme pressure at the core of Jupiter.
d.
It is composed of iron and nickel because this material will settle to the core.
e.
It is composed entirely of ices that have frozen into a large rock like structure.
 

114. 

The excess heat produced by Jupiter and Saturn is the result of
a.
nuclear reactions in their liquid metallic hydrogen cores.
b.
radioactive decay.
c.
hot molten lava rising to the surface.
d.
the continual slow contraction of each planet.
e.
the large number of meteorite and comet impacts that occur each year.
 

115. 

The atmosphere(s) of _________ contain(s) mostly nitrogen with traces of methane.
a.
Uranus
b.
Neptune
c.
Miranda
d.
Pluto
e.
Uranus and Neptune
 

116. 

Uranus and Neptune do not contain liquid metallic hydrogen because they
a.
are not massive enough.
b.
do not contain enough hydrogen.
c.
rotate too slowly.
d.
are too far from the sun.
e.
have magnetic fields that are much too weak.
 

117. 

The magnetic fields of Uranus and Neptune are peculiar in that they are
a.
highly inclined to the axis of rotation.
b.
very strong.
c.
linked to the solar wind.
d.
produced by disturbances caused by the orbits of the moons.
e.
all of the above
 

118. 

_________ is a satellite of Pluto.
a.
Miranda
b.
Charon
c.
Triton
d.
Krypton
e.
Nereid
 

119. 

Uranus and Neptune appear blue because
a.
their atmospheres absorb blue light very efficiently.
b.
both of them have very small masses for Jovian planets.
c.
their surfaces are covered with water and their clouds are very thin
d.
their atmospheres absorb red light very efficiently.
e.
the wind speeds are very high and show a strong blue shift.
 

120. 

Ariel has a bright surface and grooves 10 km deep. Based on this, it can be concluded that
a.
Ariel has a fairly old surface.
b.
Ariel has a fairly young surface.
c.
Ariel has a thin atmosphere.
d.
Ariel is very far from its parent planet, Uranus.
e.
a and d
 

121. 

The graph on the below plots the escape velocity of several solar system objects along the vertical axis and the surface temperature along the horizontal. The lines plotted in the figure are the average speeds of gas particles as a function of temperature for various gases. Which of the gases potted in this diagram could be retained by Miranda?

studyguide12-20_files/i1220000.jpg
a.
only CO2
b.
only NH3
c.
CO2, NH3, and O2
d.
all of them
e.
None of them
 

122. 

Pluto's density is 1.8 g/cm3. This implies that
a.
Pluto has a large iron-nickel core.
b.
Pluto is about 50% water and 50% rocky material.
c.
Pluto should have a magnetic field about one-third as strong as Earth's.
d.
Pluto is still geologically active.
e.
Pluto probably has a small ring system that hasn't yet been detected.
 

123. 

Chondrites are meteorites that have
a.
never been heated.
b.
been heated sufficiently to release the volatiles it contained.
c.
been heated sufficiently to melt the chondrules.
d.
been completely melted.
e.
entered Earth's atmosphere but will be destroyed before reaching the ground.
 

124. 

A meteor shower is produced when
a.
a large number of sporadic meteors are observed.
b.
Earth passes through the asteroid belt.
c.
massive particles are carried outward from the sun by the solar wind and enter Earth's atmosphere.
d.
Earth passes through the orbital path of a comet.
e.
meteors cause condensation in the upper atmosphere that leads to early morning rains.
 

125. 

The _________ meteorites could have formed in the crust of a large asteroid that was later fragmented.
a.
chondrite
b.
iron
c.
achondrite
d.
M-type
e.
chondrule
 

126. 

The gas tail of a comet always
a.
trails behind the head along the orbital path.
b.
extends ahead of the head along the orbital path.
c.
points toward the sun.
d.
points away from the sun.
e.
points perpendicular to the orbital path
 

127. 

The short-period comets do not have randomly oriented orbits because
a.
they are affected by the sun's gravity.
b.
they are affected by the solar wind.
c.
they formed in the Kuiper Belt, a belt shaped region in the plane of the solar system.
d.
their orbits are altered by the drag of their tails in the solar wind.
e.
they all were originally objects ejected from the asteroid belt.
 

128. 

Carbonaceous chondrites

I.
contain mostly iron and nickel
II.
contain volatiles
III.
contain chondrules
IV.
are similar in composition to the S-type asteroids
a.
II & III
b.
I, II & III
c.
II, III & IV
d.
I, III, & IV
e.
I, II, III, & IV
 

129. 

The _________ is a disk-shaped cloud of icy bodies believed to extend from about 40 AU out to 100 AU. It is believed that short period comets originate from this region.
a.
Oort cloud
b.
Widmanstätten cloud
c.
Apollo-Amor
d.
Kirkwood region
e.
Kuiper belt
 

130. 

The diagram below shows the relative size of Earth's moon and the asteroid 10 Hygiea. Based on this diagram, what is the diameter of 10 Hygiea?

studyguide12-20_files/i1310000.jpg
a.
460 km
b.
46 km
c.
4600 m
d.
46 m
e.
4600 km
 

131. 

Currently the most accepted explanation of the Tunguska Event is the explosion of
a.
a German U-2 rocket.
b.
an iron meteor just above the surface of Earth.
c.
a stony asteroid just above the surface of Earth.
d.
a mini black hole in Earth's atmosphere.
e.
an alien space craft as it crashed to Earth.
 

132. 

The type I, or gas, tail of a comet
a.
is smooth and featureless with a spectrum identical to that of the sun.
b.
is present even when the comet is located in the region of the Kuiper belt.
c.
is unaffected by the magnetic field of the sun.
d.
always points toward the sun.
e.
is streaked and shows emission lines of ionized atoms.
 

133. 

The diagram below is a plot of an asteroid's reflected brightness versus it ultraviolet minus visual color (U - V color). In this diagram, which of the asteroids is most likely an S-type asteroid?

studyguide12-20_files/i1340000.jpg
a.
Object 1
b.
Object 2
c.
Object 3
d.
Object 4
e.
Object 5
 

134. 

The asteroid Ida has a small moon that orbits it and an irregular surface. What does this tell us about Ida?
a.
Ida is geologically active.
b.
Ida has been fragmented.
c.
Ida is differentiated.
d.
Ida is an M-type asteroid.
e.
Ida is most likely an object that used to orbit Jupiter, but was pulled out of orbit by a collision.
 

135. 

The iron meteorites
a.
represent the largest number of falls.
b.
are only found in the Antarctic.
c.
are composed of carbonaceous chondrites.
d.
are responsible for most of the meteor craters on the surface of the moon.
e.
appear to have formed in the interiors of molten planetesimals.
 

136. 

The impact of a large comet with Earth has been suggested to have caused the extinction of the dinosaurs. The impact site of this comet is in or near
a.
Iowa
b.
Hudson Bay
c.
Crater Lake, Oregon
d.
Canberra Australia
e.
Chicxulub Mexico
 

137. 

An asteroid has an orbital period around the sun of 5.2 years. How far from the sun is this asteroid?
a.
5.2 AU
b.
10.4 AU
c.
27.0 AU
d.
3.0 AU
e.
2.3 AU
 

138. 

DNA molecules contain patterns for the production of
a.
proteins.
b.
amino acids.
c.
phosphates and sugars.
d.
fours kinds of bases.
e.
all of the above
 

139. 

The first complex life appeared on Earth about 0.5 billion years ago during the
a.
Jurassic Period.
b.
Mississippian Period.
c.
Cambrian Period.
d.
Precambrian Period.
e.
Neolithic Period.
 

140. 

The stars most likely to have inhabited planets are
a.
G to K main sequence stars.
b.
B to A main sequence stars.
c.
G to K giants.
d.
M main sequence stars.
e.
white dwarfs and neutron stars.
 

141. 

The life zone is
a.
the region on a planet where conditions are acceptable for life to exist.
b.
a region around a star where a planet's temperature would permit the existence of liquid water.
c.
very small for a massive star.
d.
only found around G and K stars.
e.
a region on a young planet where amino acids can begin to form DNA molecules.
 

142. 

Life on Earth is based on
a.
carbon chemistry.
b.
helium chemistry
c.
silicon chemistry.
d.
oxygen chemistry.
e.
nitrogen chemistry.
 

143. 

The number of communicative civilizations in our galaxy is limited by
a.
the size of the average planet.
b.
the survival of technological societies.
c.
21-cm radiation.
d.
their distance from Earth.
e.
the number of high mass stars in the galaxy.
 

144. 

Current searches for extraterrestrial intelligence use radio telescopes to
a.
listen to many stars at the same time.
b.
listen to many frequencies at the same time.
c.
transmit signals to many stars at the same time.
d.
transmit many frequencies at the same time.
e.
look for planets like Earth in other galaxies.
 

145. 

The DNA molecule can be altered
a.
by chance mismatching of base pairs.
b.
by damage from exposure to radioactivity.
c.
if the host cell is intelligent and determines that an alteration would help the cell survive.
d.
all of the above
e.
a and b above
 

146. 

The most likely region of the radio spectrum for communication with other civilizations is the water hole, the part of the spectrum
a.
near the radio emission of water.
b.
near the radio emission of oxygen molecules.
c.
between the radio emission of hydrogen and oxygen.
d.
between the radio emissions of hydrogen and OH.
e.
near the radio band where water in the Earth's atmosphere strongly absorbs energy.
 

147. 

At present, life on Earth is believed to have begun
a.
near the south pole.
b.
on the continent of Africa.
c.
in small tidal pools near large lakes and streams.
d.
high in the mountains.
e.
deep in the oceans near warm lava flows.
 

148. 

What limitation(s) make it impossible to travel between stars?

I.
Fuel requirements
II.
The tremendous distances between stars
III.
The finite speed at which objects can travel
a.
I
b.
II
c.
III
d.
II & III
e.
I, II, & III
 

149. 

DNA is important to a cell because
a.
DNA is the cell membrane that allows nutrients to enter the cell and waste to leave.
b.
DNA contains the information necessary to make all of the molecules required by the organism.
c.
DNA contains the information necessary for the cell to reproduce itself.
d.
all of the above
e.
b and c above
 

150. 

A single human cell encloses about 1.5 meters of DNA containing 4.5 billion base pairs. How far apart are these base pairs in the DNA?
a.
3.3 x 10-10 nm
b.
3.3 x 1010 nm
c.
3 x 109 nm
d.
300 nm
e.
0.34 nm
 



 
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