Name: 
 

Midterm Practice Exam



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

1. 

How many kilometers are there in a meter?
a.
100
b.
1,000
c.
10,000
d.
0.01
e.
0.001
 

2. 

Scientific notation is used in science because
a.
it makes it easy to write big or small numbers.
b.
all astronomical distances are expressed in metric units.
c.
it makes conversions between units easy.
d.
all of the above
e.
none of the above
 

3. 

If the nearest star is 4.2 light-years away, then
a.
the star is 4.2 million AU away.
b.
the light we see left the star 4.2 years ago.
c.
the star must have formed 4.2 billion years ago.
d.
the star must be older than the sun.
e.
the star must be younger than the sun.
 

4. 

The Andromeda Galaxy is at a distance of 2.2 million light years. What does this statement tell us about the Andromeda Galaxy?
a.
The Andromeda Galaxy is located within the Milky Way Galaxy
b.
The Andromeda Galaxy is not part of the Local Group.
c.
The light from the Andromeda Galaxy has taken 2.2 x 106 years to reach Earth.
d.
The Andromeda Galaxy can be no more than 2.2 million years old.
e.
The Andromeda Galaxy is a spiral galaxy like the Milky Way.
 

5. 

A galaxy contains
a.
primarily planets.
b.
lots of gas and dust but very few stars.
c.
lots of gas, dust, and stars.
d.
a single star and planets.
e.
thousands of superclusters.
 

6. 

The radius of the moon's orbit is about ________ times larger than the radius of Earth.
a.
0.6
b.
6
c.
60
d.
600
e.
6000
 

7. 

The Milky Way Galaxy
a.
contains about 100 billion stars.
b.
is about 100 light-years in diameter.
c.
is the largest known object in the universe.
d.
all of the above
e.
a and c
 

8. 

2.9 x 107 is the same as
a.
2.9 thousand
b.
29 thousand
c.
290 thousand
d.
2.9 million
e.
29 million
 

9. 

4.63 x 109 is the same as
a.
4,630,000,000
b.
463,000,000
c.
46,300,000
d.
4,630,000
e.
4.63 million
 

10. 

If the universe is 12 billion years old, what is the distance to the most distant object that we will be able to observe?
a.
1.2 x 108
b.
1.2 x 1010 AU.
c.
1.2 x 106 ly
d.
1.2 x 1010 ly
e.
1.2 x 108 ly
 

11. 

In the diagram below, what is the diameter of Mercury?

studyguide1-11_files/i0120000.jpg
a.
about 240 km
b.
about 2400 km
c.
about 24,000 km
d.
about 240,000 km
e.
about 2.4 x 106 km
 

12. 

In the diagram below, what is the diameter of Jupiter?

studyguide1-11_files/i0130000.jpg
a.
about 9,000 km
b.
about 35,700 km
c.
about 71,400 km
d.
about 143,000 km
e.
about 3.57x 105 km
 

13. 

If light takes 8 minutes to reach Earth from the sun and 5 hours to reach Pluto, what is the distance from the sun to Pluto?
a.
5 AU
b.
37.5 AU
c.
37.5 ly
d.
5 ly
e.
0.6 ly
 

14. 

If light takes 8 minutes to reach Earth from the sun and Venus is 0.7 AU from the sun, how long does it take light to travel from the sun to Venus?
a.
5.6 minutes
b.
1.1 seconds
c.
1.5 minutes
d.
1.1 minutes
e.
5.6 sec
 

15. 

Earth has a radius of about 6,400 km, the sun has a radius of about 7.0 x 105 km, and a rubber ball has a radius of 6.4 cm. If you were to construct a scale model of the solar system using the rubber ball to represent Earth, what is the radius of a ball needed to represent the sun in your model?
a.
7.0 x 105 cm
b.
7.0 cm
c.
700 cm
d.
70 cm
e.
7,000 cm
 

16. 

Seen from the northern latitudes, the star Polaris
a.
is never above the horizon during the day.
b.
always sets directly in the west.
c.
is always above the northern horizon.
d.
is never visible during the winter.
e.
is the brightest star in the sky.
 

17. 

The celestial equator is
a.
a line around the sky directly above Earth's equator.
b.
the dividing line between the north and south celestial hemispheres.
c.
the path that the sun appears to follow on the celestial sphere as Earth orbits the sun.
d.
a and b.
e.
a and c.
 

18. 

Constellation names are
a.
Latin.
b.
Greek.
c.
Arabic.
d.
English.
e.
Italian.
 

19. 

The magnitude scale
a.
originated just after the telescope was invented.
b.
can be used to indicate the apparent intensity of a celestial object.
c.
was devised by Galileo.
d.
is no longer used today.
e.
was used to determine the rate of precession.
 

20. 

The apparent visual magnitude of a star is 7.3. This tells us that the star is
a.
one of the brighter stars in the sky.
b.
bright enough that it would be visible even during the day.
c.
not visible with the unaided eye.
d.
very far from Earth.
e.
very close to Earth.
 

21. 

The apparent visual magnitude of a star is a measure of the star's
a.
size.
b.
intensity.
c.
distance.
d.
color.
e.
temperature.
 

22. 

Which star in the table below would appear the brightest to an observer on Earth?

Star
Name
Apparent Visual
Magnitude
d Dra
3.07
a Cet
2.53
r Per
3.98
Nim
8.07
a Cma
-1.46 
a.
a Cet
b.
a CM
c.
Nim
d.
r Per
e.
d Dra
 

23. 

Based on the information in the table below, what is the ratio of the intensity of Dra to that of Nim?

Star
Name
Apparent Visual
Magnitude
d Dra
3.07
a Cet
2.53
r Per
3.98
Nim
8.07
a Cma
-1.46 
a.
2.512
b.
5
c.
8.07
d.
11.14
e.
100
 

24. 

Which star in the table below would not be visible to the unaided eye of an observer on Earth?

Star
Name
Apparent Visual
Magnitude
d Dra
3.07
a Cet
2.53
r Per
3.98
Nim
8.07
a Cma
-1.46 
a.
a Cet
b.
a Cma
c.
Nim
d.
r Per
e.
d Dra
 

25. 

You live at a latitude of 73° N. What is the angle between the northern horizon and the north celestial pole?
a.
73°
b.
27°
c.
17°
d.
23 1/2°
e.
 

26. 

You live at a latitude of 39° S. What is the angle between the southern horizon and the south celestial pole?
a.
45°
b.
23.5°
c.
39°
d.
51°
e.
The answer depends on the day of the year.
 

27. 

You live at a latitude of 28° N. What is the angle between the northern horizon and the north celestial pole?
a.
62°
b.
28°
c.
40°
d.
23 1/2°
e.
 

28. 

You live at a latitude of 16° S. What is the angle between the southern horizon and the south celestial pole?
a.
74°
b.
164°
c.
16°
d.
23 1/2°
e.
 

29. 

You live at a latitude of 39° S. What is the angle between the southern horizon and the south celestial pole?
a.
45°
b.
23.5°
c.
39°
d.
51°
e.
The answer depends on the day of the year.
 

30. 

If the north celestial pole appears on your horizon, what is your latitude?
a.
90° N
b.
90° S
c.
d.
45° N
e.
The latitude of the observer can not be determined from the information given.
 

31. 

What is the approximate latitude of the observer in the diagram below?

studyguide1-11_files/i0320000.jpg
a.
20° N
b.
20° S
c.
70° N
d.
70° S
e.
 

32. 

An observer in the Northern Hemisphere takes a time exposure photograph of the night sky. If the illustration to the right depicts the photograph taken by the observer, which direction was the camera pointing?

studyguide1-11_files/i0330000.jpg
a.
straight north
b.
straight east
c.
straight south
d.
straight west
e.
straight up, directly overhead
 

33. 

An observer in the Northern Hemisphere takes a time exposure photograph of the night sky. If the illustration to the right depicts the photograph taken by the observer, which direction was the camera pointing?

studyguide1-11_files/i0340000.jpg
a.
straight north
b.
straight east
c.
straight south
d.
straight west
e.
straight up, directly overhead
 

34. 

An observer in the Southern Hemisphere takes a time exposure photograph of the night sky. If the illustration to the right depicts the photograph taken by the observer, which direction was the camera pointing?

studyguide1-11_files/i0350000.jpg
a.
straight north
b.
straight east
c.
straight south
d.
straight west
e.
straight up, directly overhead
 

35. 

An observer in the Southern Hemisphere takes a time exposure photograph of the night sky. If the illustration to the right depicts the photograph taken by the observer, which direction was the camera pointing?

studyguide1-11_files/i0360000.jpg
a.
straight north
b.
straight east
c.
straight south
d.
straight west
e.
straight up, directly overhead
 

36. 

An observer in the Northern Hemisphere takes a time exposure photograph of the night sky. If the illustration to the right depicts the photograph taken by the observer, which direction was the camera pointing?

studyguide1-11_files/i0370000.jpg
a.
straight north
b.
straight east
c.
straight south
d.
straight west
e.
straight up, directly overhead
 

37. 

An observer in the Southern Hemisphere takes a time exposure photograph of the night sky. If the illustration to the right depicts the photograph taken by the observer, which direction was the camera pointing?

studyguide1-11_files/i0380000.jpg
a.
straight north
b.
straight east
c.
straight south
d.
straight west
e.
straight up, directly overhead
 

38. 

Precession of the rotation axis of Earth is caused by
a.
the force of gravity from the sun and moon on Earth's equatorial bulge.
b.
the force of gravity from the sun and Jupiter on the Earth-moon system.
c.
the magnetic field of Earth.
d.
the formation and subsequent melting of glaciers during the ice-ages.
e.
the impact of asteroids.
 

39. 

Most star names, such as Aldebaran and Betelgeuse are
a.
Latin.
b.
Greek.
c.
Arabic.
d.
English.
e.
Italian.
 

40. 

Polaris is a second magnitude star, and Phi Pegasi is about 16 times fainter than Polaris. What is the approximate magnitude of Phi Pegasi?
a.
18
b.
-14
c.
3
d.
-3
e.
5
 

41. 

The __________ is 18 years and 111/3 days long.
a.
sidereal period
b.
synodic period
c.
eclipse season
d.
saros cycle
e.
eclipse year
 

42. 

The sun moves
a.
about one degree westward each day.
b.
about one degree eastward each day.
c.
about 360 degrees westward each day.
d.
about 360 degrees eastward each day.
e.
along the celestial equator.
 

43. 

The diagram below shows three approximate locations of the sun along the western horizon. Which number indicates the location of the sun at sunset on June 21 for an observer at a latitude of 37° N?

studyguide1-11_files/i0440000.jpg
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
The sun will set in the east for an observer in the southern hemisphere.
e.
The sun will not set on June 21 at this latitude.
 

44. 

Northern Hemisphere winters are colder than Northern Hemisphere summers because
a.
Earth is closer to the sun during the summer.
b.
the snow that falls in the northern latitudes cools Earth during the winter.
c.
the light from the sun shines more directly on the Northern Hemisphere during the summer.
d.
the period of sunlight is longer during the summer than during the winter.
e.
c and d
 

45. 

The sun is on the celestial equator at the times of
a.
the vernal equinox and the summer solstice.
b.
the autumnal equinox and the vernal equinox.
c.
the summer solstice and the winter solstice.
d.
the autumnal equinox and the winter solstice.
e.
the sun is on the ecliptic and is never on the celestial equator.
 

46. 

The ecliptic is
a.
the center line of the zodiac.
b.
the projection of Earth's orbit on the sky.
c.
the apparent path of the sun around the sky.
d.
all of the above
e.
none of the above
 

47. 

A(n) __________ is a set of beliefs that appears to be based on scientific ideas, but which fails to obey the most basic rules of science.
a.
theory
b.
hypothesis
c.
pseudo science
d.
allegory
e.
scientific model
 

48. 

The point in Earth's orbit when Earth is farthest from the sun is known as
a.
aphelion.
b.
perihelion.
c.
precession.
d.
the winter solstice
e.
a and d
 

49. 

The planet(s) of our solar system that are never visible to the naked eye are
a.
Pluto.
b.
Mercury, Neptune, and Pluto.
c.
Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, and Pluto.
d.
Neptune and Pluto.
e.
Mercury and Venus.
 

50. 

On the vernal equinox the sun is
a.
23 1/2° north of the celestial equator.
b.
23 1/2° south of the celestial equator.
c.
on the celestial equator and moving north with respect to the equator.
d.
on the celestial equator and moving south with respect to the equator.
e.
closest to the north celestial pole.
 

51. 

A solar or lunar eclipse will occur
a.
when the sun is near the line of nodes of the moon and the moon is new or full.
b.
any time the moon is new or full.
c.
when the sun is near the solstice and the moon is new or full.
d.
half way through an eclipse year.
e.
when the sun is near the equinox and the moon is new or full.
 

52. 

Spring tides occur
a.
at new moon and first quarter moon.
b.
at first quarter and third quarter moons.
c.
at new moon and full moon.
d.
at third quarter and full moons.
e.
at noon and midnight.
 

53. 

__________ occur when the moon is first or third quarter.
a.
Neap tides
b.
Spring tides
c.
Total solar eclipses
d.
Annular eclipses
e.
A coppery red moon will
 

54. 

The synodic period of the moon
a.
is about 27.32 days long.
b.
is the period of time for the moon to orbit Earth once with respect to the stars.
c.
is the period of time between successive eclipses at a given location on Earth.
d.
is the period of time from when the moon rises until the moon rises again the next night.
e.
none of the above
 

55. 

The saros cycle
a.
was used in ancient times to predict eclipses.
b.
is 18 years, 111/3 days long.
c.
comes from a Greek word that means repetition.
d.
all of the above
e.
none of the above
 

56. 

A waxing crescent moon is visible
a.
near the eastern horizon just before sunrise.
b.
near the eastern horizon just after sunset.
c.
near the western horizon just before sunrise.
d.
near the western horizon just after sunset.
e.
from sunset until sunrise
 

57. 

During a total lunar eclipse,
a.
the moon must be new.
b.
the observer must be in the path of totality.
c.
the moon's color will be affected by Earth's atmosphere.
d.
the moon must be at about its greatest distance from Earth.
e.
it must be near the time of one of the equinoxes.
 

58. 

A totally eclipsed moon glows coppery red because
a.
the moon' surface is made of iron ore which is red in color.
b.
red light is cooler than blue light.
c.
during a lunar eclipse the sun is cooler than normal and its light is more red.
d.
only red light is able to pass completely through Earth's atmosphere and reach the moon.
e.
The moon appears red during a total solar eclipse, not a total lunar eclipse.
 

59. 

A total lunar eclipse is
a.
visible only from the path of totality.
b.
visible only during a new moon.
c.
visible to all observers on the side of Earth from which the moon would be visible at that time.
d.
an opportunity to study the corona of the sun
e.
none of the above
 

60. 

Which of the following is not visible during totality of a total solar eclipse?
a.
the corona of the sun.
b.
the chromosphere of the sun.
c.
prominences.
d.
the photosphere of the sun.
e.
all of the above
 

61. 

During a total lunar eclipse, which of the following are true?

I.
The photosphere of the sun is obscured.
II.
The moon is in Earth's umbra.
III.
The moon is new.
IV.
The moon is full.
a.
I, III
b.
II, IV
c.
I, II, III
d.
II, III
e.
I, II, III, IV
 

62. 

The moon has an angular diameter of 0.5°. What is the moon's angular diameter in minutes of arc?
a.
0.5
b.
30
c.
50
d.
1800
e.
60.5
 

63. 

A marble has a diameter of 2 cm. At what distance would the marble have an angular diameter of 1 arc second.
a.
4.1 cm
b.
4.1 miles
c.
4.1 m
d.
4.1 ft
e.
4.1 km
 

64. 

A total solar eclipse occurred in Wolf Point, Montana on Feb. 26, 1979. When did (will) this eclipse again be visible in Montana?
a.
within 3 days of August 26, 1979
b.
within 3 days of March 30, 2033
c.
within 3 days of March 9. 1997
d.
within 3 days of March 13, 1979
e.
within 3 days of Jan. 1, 2000
 

65. 

What is the angle between the noon sun on the winter solstice and the southern horizon for an observer at a latitude of 38° N?
a.
38°
b.
52°
c.
75.5°
d.
28.5°
e.
14.5°
 

66. 

The book "De Revolutionibus Orbium Coelestium"
a.
describes how Galileo's observations and Kepler's calculations proved the Copernican theory.
b.
describes the construction of Galileo's telescope and his observations.
c.
is a dialog written to convince the general public of the merits of the Copernican theory.
d.
first described the Copernican theory.
e.
describes the Tychonian theory.
 

67. 

A(n) __________ is a commonly accepted set of scientific ideas and assumptions.
a.
theory
b.
paradigm
c.
hypothesis
d.
natural law
e.
model
 

68. 

A(n) __________ is a single conjecture that can be tested.
a.
hypothesis
b.
paradigm
c.
natural law
d.
model
e.
theory
 

69. 

A(n) __________ is a system of rules and principles that can be applied to a wide variety of circumstances, but that is not universally accepted.
a.
hypothesis
b.
paradigm
c.
natural law
d.
model
e.
theory
 

70. 

Galileo's observations of the gibbous phase of Venus proved
a.
that Venus orbited the sun.
b.
that Earth orbited the sun.
c.
that all of the planets orbited the sun.
d.
that the moon orbited Earth.
e.
that Venus had an atmosphere.
 

71. 

Galileo's telescopic discoveries of mountains on the moon and spots on the sun were controversial because they suggested that the sun and moon
a.
were the same kind of object.
b.
were not perfect spheres.
c.
were inhabited.
d.
orbited each other.
e.
did not orbit Earth.
 

72. 

Tycho Brahe's greatest contribution to astronomy was
a.
his model of the universe.
b.
his telescopic observations.
c.
his discovery of three laws of motion.
d.
his 20 years of careful observations of the planets.
e.
a and b above
 

73. 

Newton concluded that some force had to act on the moon because
a.
a force is needed to keep the moon in motion.
b.
a force is needed to pull the moon outward.
c.
a force is needed to pull the moon away from straight-line motion.
d.
the moon moved at a constant velocity.
e.
all of the above
 

74. 

The __________ of an object is a measure of the amount of matter it contains. On the other hand __________ is a measure of the gravitational force on an object.
a.
weight mass
b.
mass weight
c.
energy force
d.
force energy
e.
momentum energy
 

75. 

The diagram below illustrates a portion of the model for the universe described by

studyguide1-11_files/i0760000.jpg
a.
Kepler
b.
Tycho
c.
Ptolemy
d.
Copernicus
e.
Galileo
 

76. 

Kepler's second law implies that
a.
a planet should move at its greatest speed when it is closest to the sun.
b.
the most massive planets will have the greatest speed in their orbits.
c.
the speed of a planet in its orbit depends on the size of the epicycle.
d.
the mass of the planet determines how far the planet is from the sun.
e.
the deferent and the epicycle have to be attached to the sun and not Earth.
 

77. 

Kepler's first law of planetary motion implies that
a.
a planet moves at a constant speed at all points in its orbit.
b.
the distance that a planet is from the sun depends on the mass of the planet.
c.
uniform circular motion is adequate to describe the motion of all planets.
d.
the distance between the planet and the sun changes as the planet orbits the sun.
e.
planets closer to the sun than Earth will show retrograde motion.
 

78. 

Gravity obeys an inverse square relation. This statement implies that the force due to gravity between two masses
a.
will increase as the distance between the two masses increases.
b.
will decrease as the square of the distance between the two masses increases.
c.
will cause the two masses to move away from each other.
d.
will cause the two masses to move in a straight line.
e.
will cause the two masses to orbit each other.
 

79. 

The force due to gravity between two objects depends on

I.
the mass of each object.
II.
the distance each object is from Earth.
III.
the distance between the two objects.
IV.
the speed of light.
a.
I & II
b.
I & III
c.
II & IV
d.
I, II, & III
e.
I, II, III, & IV
 

80. 

The period of Jupiter's orbit around the sun is approximately 12 years. What is the approximate distance from the sun to Jupiter?
a.
144 AU
b.
1728 AU
c.
42 AU
d.
5.2 AU
e.
2.3
 

81. 

What is the wavelength of the longest wavelength light that can be seen with the human eye?
a.
400 nm
b.
4000 nm
c.
7000 nm
d.
700 nm
e.
3 x 108 m
 

82. 

__________ has (have) wavelengths that are longer than visible light.
a.
Gamma-rays
b.
Ultraviolet light
c.
Infrared radiation
d.
X-rays
e.
a, b and d above
 

83. 

__________ has (have) wavelengths that are shorter than visible light.

I.
Gamma-rays
II.
Ultraviolet light
III.
Infrared radiation
IV.
X-rays
a.
I & II
b.
I & IV
c.
II & III
d.
II, III, & IV
e.
I, II, & IV
 

84. 

Radio telescopes have poor resolving power because
a.
their diameters are so large.
b.
the energy they receive is not electromagnetic radiation.
c.
radio waves have long wavelengths.
d.
a and b
e.
none of the above
 

85. 

The sidereal drive of a telescope mounting must turn the telescope
a.
southward about the polar axis.
b.
eastward about the polar axis.
c.
westward about the polar axis.
d.
northward about the polar axis.
e.
none of the above
 

86. 

A __________ is a piece of glass with many small parallel lines etched on its surface to produce a spectrum.
a.
grating
b.
spectrograph
c.
photometer
d.
charge-coupled device
e.
prism
 

87. 

The __________ of a telescope is a measure of its ability to show fine detail and depends on the diameter of the objective.
a.
light-gathering power
b.
focal length
c.
magnifying power
d.
resolving power
e.
spherical aberration
 

88. 

Which of the following telescopes must be used above Earth's atmosphere?
a.
an optical telescope
b.
the VLBI telescope
c.
an x-ray telescope
d.
a radio telescope
e.
none of the above
 

89. 

A telescope that suffers from chromatic aberration and has a low light gathering power is most likely
a.
a small diameter reflecting telescope.
b.
a small diameter refracting telescope.
c.
a large diameter refracting telescope.
d.
a large diameter reflecting telescope.
e.
an infrared telescope.
 

90. 

Long wavelength visible light
a.
will have a greater energy than short wavelength visible light.
b.
will have a speed that is faster than short wavelength light.
c.
has a higher frequency than short wavelength visible light.
d.
will appear blue in color to the average human eye.
e.
will appear red in color to the average human eye.
 

91. 

Blue light
a.
has a greater energy than red light.
b.
has a greater energy than ultraviolet light.
c.
has a lower frequency than red light.
d.
has a longer wavelength than red light.
e.
travels at a greater speed than red light.
 

92. 

Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the highest frequency?
a.
x-rays
b.
visible light
c.
radio
d.
gamma-rays
e.
infrared radiation
 

93. 

Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the greatest energy?
a.
x-rays
b.
visible light
c.
radio
d.
gamma-rays
e.
infrared radiation
 

94. 

Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest energy?
a.
x-rays
b.
visible light
c.
ultraviolet
d.
gamma-rays
e.
infrared radiation
 

95. 

__________ is absorbed by ozone in Earth's atmosphere that is located between 20 km and 40 km above Earth's surface. Therefore, telescope to observe this radiation must be placed in space.
a.
Infrared radiation
b.
Ultraviolet radiation
c.
Radio wave radiation
d.
X-ray radiation
e.
Visible light
 

96. 

What is the ratio of the light gathering power of a 10 m telescope to that of a 1 meter telescope?
a.
10 to 1
b.
1 to 10
c.
100 to 1
d.
1 to 100
e.
3.2 to 1
 

97. 

The resolving power of an optical telescope with a diameter of 232 cm is
a.
0.05 arc seconds.
b.
232 arc seconds.
c.
2.32 arc seconds.
d.
5 arc seconds.
e.
11.6 arc seconds.
 

98. 

What is the magnification of a telescope and eyepiece if the telescope objective has a focal length of 200 cm and the eyepiece has a focal length of 0.2 cm
a.
400 times
b.
4000 times
c.
100 times
d.
1000 times
e.
40 times
 

99. 

The diagram below illustrates a __________ telescope.

studyguide1-11_files/i1000000.jpg
a.
Coude focus
b.
Cassegrain
c.
Newtonian
d.
Schmidt-Cassegrain
e.
Prime focus
 

100. 

The diagram below illustrates a __________ telescope.

studyguide1-11_files/i1010000.jpg
a.
Coude focus
b.
Cassegrain
c.
Newtonian
d.
Schmidt-Cassegrain
e.
Prime focus
 

101. 

Absolute zero is
a.
zero degrees Celsius.
b.
the temperature at which atoms have no remaining energy from which we can extract heat.
c.
the temperature at which water freezes.
d.
both a and c
e.
none of the above
 

102. 

The neutral hydrogen atom consists of
a.
one proton and one neutron.
b.
one proton.
c.
one proton, one neutron, and one electron.
d.
one proton and one electron.
e.
an isotope and an ion.
 

103. 

The process of removing an electron from a stable nucleus is known as
a.
ionization.
b.
Doppler broadening.
c.
collisional broadening.
d.
a red shift.
e.
quantum mechanics.
 

104. 

An atom can be excited
a.
if it emits a photon.
b.
if it collides with another atom or electron.
c.
if it absorbs a photon.
d.
a and b above
e.
b and c above
 

105. 

The __________ of a gas is a measure of the average speed of the particles in the gas.
a.
heat
b.
composition
c.
temperature
d.
blue shift
e.
binding energy
 

106. 

In the diagram below, which of the transitions would absorb a photon with the greatest energy.

studyguide1-11_files/i1070000.jpg
a.
Transition 1
b.
Transition 2
c.
Transition 3
d.
Transition 4
e.
Transition 5
 

107. 

An atom that is excited
a.
is also ionized.
b.
is an isotope.
c.
has had its electron moved to the lowest energy level.
d.
can emit a photon when the electron moves to a lower energy level.
e.
can emit a photon when the electron moves to a higher energy level.
 

108. 

The lowest energy level in an atom is
a.
the absolute zero temperature.
b.
the ground state.
c.
the ionization level.
d.
responsible for Doppler shifts.
e.
the energy level from which the Paschen Series of hydrogen originates.
 

109. 

You are standing near a railroad track and a train is moving toward you at 60 mph and blowing its horn. What will you notice as the train moves past you?
a.
As the train approaches, the horn will sound lower in pitch than when the train is moving away.
b.
As the train approaches, the horn will sound higher in pitch than when the train is moving away.
c.
There will be no change in the pitch of the horn as it moves by.
d.
The horn will get louder as the train moves away from you.
e.
The horn will get quieter as the train moves toward you.
 

110. 

Which of the following can be determined by using the Doppler effect?

I.
The speed at which a star is moving away from an observer.
II.
The transverse velocity of a star.
III.
The radial velocity of a star.
IV.
The speed at which a car is traveling toward an observer.
a.
I & IV
b.
II & III
c.
II & IV
d.
I & III
e.
I, III, & IV
 

111. 

Why don't we see hydrogen Balmer lines in the spectra of stars with temperatures of 3,200 K?
a.
There is no hydrogen in stars this cool.
b.
The stars are hot enough that most of the hydrogen is ionized and the atoms can not absorb energy.
c.
These stars are so cool that nearly all of the electrons in the hydrogen atom are in the ground state.
d.
Stars of this temperature are too cool to produce an absorption spectrum.
e.
Stars of this temperature are too hot to produce an absorption spectrum.
 

112. 

The absorption lines in the visible portion of the spectrum of a star that are produced by hydrogen are from the
a.
Lyman series.
b.
Balmer series.
c.
Paschen series.
d.
isotopes of hydrogen.
e.
ions of hydrogen.
 

113. 

The diagram below illustrates a light source, a gas cloud, and three different lines of sight. Along which line of sight would an observer see an emission spectrum?

studyguide1-11_files/i1140000.jpg
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
2 and 3
e.
none of them
 

114. 

The table below lists the spectral types for each of five stars. Which star in this table would have the lowest surface temperature?

Star Name
Spectral Type
a For
F8
o Cet
M7
35 Ari
B3
g Tri
A0
x Per
O7
a.
a For
b.
o Cet
c.
35 Ari
d.
g Tri
e.
x Per
 

115. 

At what wavelength would a star radiate the greatest amount of energy if the star has a surface temperature of 60,000 K?
a.
50 nm
b.
500 nm
c.
300 nm
d.
1.8 x 1011 nm
e.
180 nm
 

116. 

The sun has a surface temperature of approximately 5800 K. At what wavelength does the maximum energy radiated by the sun occur?
a.
5800 nm
b.
300 nm
c.
174 nm
d.
520 nm
e.
3000 nm
 

117. 

One star has a temperature of 10,000 K and another star has a temperature of 5,000 K. Compared to the cooler star, how much more energy per second will the hotter star radiate from each square meter of its surface?
a.
16 times
b.
2 times
c.
1 x 1016 times
d.
625 times
e.
25 times
 

118. 

How much energy is radiated each second by one square meter of a star whose temperature is 10,000 K? s in the Stefan-Boltzmann law is equal to studyguide1-11_files/i1190000.jpg,
a.
5.67 x 1012 J
b.
5.67 x 108 J
c.
5.67 x 104 J
d.
300 nm
e.
300,000,000 nm
 

119. 

The Hd line has a wavelength of 410.2 nm when observed in the laboratory. If the Hd line appears in a stars spectrum at 410.0 nm, what is the radial velocity of the star?
a.
146 km/sec away from the observer.
b.
146 km/sec toward the observer.
c.
6.0 x 107 m/sec away from the observer.
d.
6.0 x 107 m/sec toward the observer.
e.
The radial velocity of the star can not be determined from this information.
 

120. 

The Hg line has a wavelength of 434.0 nm when observed in the laboratory. If the Hg line appears in a stars spectrum at 434.5 nm, what is the radial velocity of the star?
a.
346 km/sec away from the observer.
b.
346 km/sec toward the observer.
c.
1.3 x 108 m/sec away from the observer.
d.
1.3 x 108 m/sec toward the observer.
e.
The radial velocity of the star can not be determined from this information.
 

121. 

Differential rotation of the sun
a.
causes the heating in the chromosphere and corona that makes them hotter than the photosphere.
b.
is caused by the magnetic dynamo inside the sun.
c.
implies that the equatorial regions of the sun rotate more slowly than the polar regions.
d.
causes the sunspots to migrate slowly from the equator toward the poles as the sun rotates.
e.
implies that the sun's southern hemisphere and northern hemisphere rotate in opposite directions.
 

122. 

Most of the light we see coming from the sun originates in the
a.
chromosphere.
b.
photosphere.
c.
corona.
d.
sunspots.
e.
magnetic field.
 

123. 

A filtergram is a photograph of the sun's surface made
a.
in a band of wavelengths in the infrared.
b.
in a band of wavelengths in the ultraviolet.
c.
using the Zeeman effect.
d.
with only those photons emitted in a specific spectral line.
e.
none of the above
 

124. 

The corona and chromosphere of the sun are heated by
a.
shock waves rising from below the photosphere.
b.
the solar wind.
c.
sunspots.
d.
a mechanism that is not yet well understood.
e.
differential rotation.
 

125. 

The chromosphere of the sun
a.
is hotter than the photosphere.
b.
appears yellow-white in color during total solar eclipse.
c.
is the visible surface of the sun.
d.
produces an absorption spectrum.
e.
all of the above.
 

126. 

Sunspots are dark because
a.
regions of the photosphere are obscured by material in the chromosphere.
b.
shock waves move through the photosphere.
c.
the sun rotates differentially.
d.
the strong magnetic field inhibits the currents of hot gas rising from below.
e.
they radiate their energy into space faster than the rest of the photosphere.
 

127. 

The centers of granules
a.
are hot material rising to the photosphere from below.
b.
are cool material falling from the photosphere to the regions below.
c.
are fainter and hotter than their surroundings.
d.
are brighter and cooler than their surroundings.
e.
show strong Zeeman effects.
 

128. 

Which of the following is evidence that convection occurs in the layers just below the sun's photosphere?
a.
Sunspots appear to be cooler than their surroundings.
b.
Solar prominences lift large loops of gas into the chromosphere and corona.
c.
The solar wind emits large numbers of charged particles.
d.
The sun rotates differentially.
e.
The centers of granules are hot and moving away from the center of the sun.
 

129. 

The diagram below shows a plot of the temperature of the sun as a function of distance above the bottom of the photosphere. At what distance above the bottom of the photosphere does the temperature of the sun change the most rapidly with distance?

studyguide1-11_files/i1300000.jpg
a.
1000 km
b.
2300 km
c.
2500 km to 4000 km
d.
500 km
e.
a and c
 

130. 

A recent sunspot maximum occurred in 1990, what is the year of the sunspot maximum that immediately follows the 1990 maximum if the solar cycle continues?
a.
1995 or 1996
b.
2001
c.
2006
d.
2012
e.
the last cycle started a Maunder minimum and the next maximum can not be predicted.
 

131. 

____________ is (are) produced by atomic transitions in the presence of a strong magnetic field.
a.
Differential rotation
b.
Granules
c.
The Zeeman effect
d.
Spicules
e.
The coronal hole
 

132. 

A __________ is believed to occur when energy, stored in a twist in the solar magnetic field above a sunspot, is suddenly released.
a.
solar flare
b.
supergranule
c.
spicule
d.
coronal hole
e.
none of the above
 

133. 

Sunspots
a.
are cooler than their surroundings.
b.
are regions where material is rising from below the photosphere.
c.
are the result of convection.
d.
produce spicules.
e.
are generally found near the poles of the sun during sunspot maximum.
 

134. 

The __________ is (are) the hot gases that are the moving extension of the sun's corona.
a.
spicules
b.
prominences
c.
flares
d.
supergranules
e.
solar wind
 

135. 

The corona of the sun can be observed
a.
during a lunar eclipse.
b.
with a coronagraph.
c.
using filtergrams.
d.
a and b above
e.
with none of the above
 

136. 

The proton-proton chain needs high temperature because
a.
of the ground state energy of the hydrogen atom.
b.
of the presence of helium atoms.
c.
the protons must overcome the Coulomb barrier.
d.
of the need for low density.
e.
the neutrinos carry more energy away than the reaction produces.
 

137. 

Which of the following is suggested as the best explanation of the missing solar neutrinos?
a.
The sun is fusing helium but not hydrogen.
b.
Nuclear reactions do not produce neutrinos as fast as theory predicts.
c.
The sun may contain matter we haven't yet identified.
d.
Neutrinos may oscillate between three different flavors.
e.
None of the above
 

138. 

In the proton-proton chain
a.
no neutrinos are produced.
b.
energy is released because a helium nucleus has a greater mass than a hydrogen nucleus.
c.
no photons are produced.
d.
carbon serves as a catalyst for the nuclear reaction.
e.
energy is produced in the form of gamma rays and the velocity of the created nuclei.
 

139. 

The capture of too few solar neutrinos by Davis in the solar neutrino experiment
a.
has been disproved by the results of later experiments.
b.
can be explained if the sun is not undergoing thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen in its core.
c.
indicates that the sun's core is much hotter than expected.
d.
indicates that the sun's core is convective.
e.
none of the above
 

140. 

If a sunspot has a temperature of 4,500 K and the surrounding solar surface has a temperature of 5,800 K, how many times brighter is the surface compared to the sunspot?
a.
0.28
b.
0.36
c.
2.8
d.
3.6
e.
36
 

141. 

The hydrogen lines in spectral type A stars
a.
are most narrow for supergiants.
b.
are most narrow for main sequence stars.
c.
can not be used to estimate the luminosity of the star.
d.
are very weak and difficult to see.
e.
are useful in determining the apparent magnitude of the star.
 

142. 

Parallax would be easier to measure if
a.
Earth's orbit were larger.
b.
the stars were farther away.
c.
Earth moved faster along its orbit.
d.
all of these
e.
none of these
 

143. 

Absolute visual magnitude is
a.
the apparent magnitude of a star observed from Earth.
b.
the luminosity of a star observed from a distance of 1000 pc.
c.
the apparent magnitude of a star observed from a distance of 10 pc.
d.
the luminosity of a star observed from Earth.
e.
c and d
 

144. 

In an H-R Diagram, stars with the smallest radius are found in the __________ of the diagram.
a.
center
b.
upper left corner
c.
upper right corner
d.
lower left corner
e.
lower right corner
 

145. 

In the H-R diagram, 90 percent of all stars are
a.
in the giant region.
b.
in the supergiant region.
c.
among the B stars.
d.
among the G stars.
e.
on the main sequence.
 
 
Diagram 8-1
Use the following HR diagram to answer the next three questions.

studyguide1-11_files/i1470000.jpg
 

146. 

Refer to Diagram 8-1. Which of the stars in the diagram above has the largest absolute visual magnitude?
a.
Alnilam
b.
Antares
c.
Arcturus
d.
HR 5337
e.
Sirius B
 

147. 

In a binary system, the more massive star
a.
is at the center of mass.
b.
is farthest from the center of mass.
c.
is nearest the center of mass.
d.
follows the largest orbit.
e.
shows a larger Doppler shift in its spectral lines.
 

148. 

Spectroscopic binaries are difficult to analyze because
a.
we can't measure the radial velocities of each star in the system.
b.
we can't see the shape of the orbit.
c.
we can't find the diameters of the stars.
d.
we can't determine the luminosities of the stars.
e.
the Doppler shift is not measurable.
 

149. 

Which of the following best obey the mass-luminosity relation?
a.
main sequence stars
b.
giant stars
c.
supergiant stars
d.
white dwarfs
e.
all of the above
 

150. 

Which of the following stars is most dense?
a.
a supergiant star
b.
a main sequence star
c.
a giant star
d.
a white dwarf
e.
the sun
 

151. 

The diagram below illustrates two stars in a visual binary system and the center of mass of this system. Based on this diagram, what is the ratio of the mass of star A to the mass of star B.

studyguide1-11_files/i1530000.jpg
a.
2 to 1
b.
1 to 2
c.
2 to 3
d.
3 to 2
e.
1 to 3
 

152. 

What is the total mass of a binary star system with P = 20 yr and a = 10 AU?
a.
2 solar masses
b.
2.5 solar masses
c.
0.5 solar mass
d.
80 solar masses
e.
0.4 solar mass
 

153. 

The diagram below shows the radial velocity curve of a double-line spectroscopic binary. Based on this radial velocity curve, which of the following statements is correct?

studyguide1-11_files/i1550000.jpg
a.
Star A is twice the mass of star B.
b.
Star B is twice the mass of star A.
c.
Star A is ten times the mass of star B.
d.
Star B is ten times the mass of star A.
e.
Star A and Star B have the same mass.
 
 
Diagram 8-2
Use the following chart to answer the next five questions.


Star

mv

Mv

d (pc)
Parallax
(sec of arc)
Spectral
Type
65 Tau
4.2
  
0.025
A7 IV
HR 4621
2.6
-0.3
  
B2 IV
a Pic
 
1.8
20
 
A7 V
58 Ori
 
-6.0
 
0.005
M2 I
HR 2491
-1.5
 
2.5
 
A1 V
 

154. 

Refer to Diagram 8-2. Which star in the table above has the greatest surface temperature?
a.
65 Tau
b.
HR 4621
c.
a Pic
d.
58 Ori
e.
HR 2491
 

155. 

If the orbital velocity of an eclipsing binary is 97 km/sec and the smaller star is completely eclipsed in 2 hours, what is the diameter of the smaller star?
a.
175,000 km
b.
350,000 km
c.
194 km
d.
700,000 km
e.
4656 km
 

156. 

Interstellar gas clouds may collapse to form stars if they
a.
have very high temperatures.
b.
encounter a shock wave.
c.
rotate rapidly.
d.
are located near main sequence spectral type K and M stars.
e.
all of the above.
 

157. 

__________ are small luminous nebulae excited by nearby young stars.
a.
T Tauri stars
b.
Herbig-Haro objects
c.
O associations
d.
Bok Globule
e.
Giant molecular clouds
 

158. 

Opacity is
a.
the balance between the pressure and force of gravity inside a star.
b.
the force that binds protons and neutrons together to form a nucleus.
c.
the force that binds an electron to the nucleus in an atom.
d.
a measure of the ease with which photons can pass through a gas.
e.
the temperature and density at which a gas will undergo thermonuclear fusion.
 

159. 

The Great Nebula in Orion
a.
is a Herbig-Haro object.
b.
is a reflection nebula.
c.
is an emission nebula.
d.
contains only young low mass stars.
e.
is believed to be about 5 billion years old.
 

160. 

__________ is the thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen to form helium operating in the cores of massive stars on the main sequence.
a.
The CNO cycle
b.
The proton-proton chain
c.
Hydrostatic equilibrium
d.
The neutrino process
e.
none of the above
 

161. 

The diagram below is an HR diagram. The line indicates the location of the main sequence. Which of the five labeled locations on the HR diagram indicates a luminosity and temperature similar to that of a T Tauri star.

studyguide1-11_files/i1640000.jpg
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
e.
5
 

162. 

In the proton-proton chain,
a.
no neutrinos are produced.
b.
energy is released because a helium nucleus has a greater mass than a hydrogen nucleus.
c.
no photons are produced.
d.
carbon serves as a catalyst for the nuclear reaction.
e.
energy is produced in the form of gamma rays and the velocity of the created nuclei.
 

163. 

What causes the outward pressure that balances the inward pull of gravity in a star?
a.
The outward flow of energy.
b.
The opacity of the gas.
c.
The temperature of the gas
d.
The density of the gas
e.
c and d
 

164. 

Convection is important in stars because it
a.
increases the temperature of the star.
b.
mixes the gases of the star.
c.
transports energy outward in the star.
d.
carries the neutrinos to the surface of the star where they can escape.
e.
b and c
 

165. 

__________ occurs when most of the material collapsing to form a protostar has fallen into a disk around the star and a strong wind from the warm protostar ejects material from its poles.
a.
An emission nebula
b.
Hydrostatic equilibrium
c.
The proton-proton chain
d.
The thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen
e.
A bipolar flow
 

166. 

There is a mass-luminosity relation because
a.
hydrogen fusion produces helium.
b.
stars expand when they become giants.
c.
stars support their weight by making energy.
d.
the helium flash occurs in degenerate matter.
e.
all stars on the main sequence have about the same radius.
 

167. 

Due to the dust in the interstellar medium, a star will appear to an observer on Earth to be
a.
brighter and cooler than it really is.
b.
brighter and hotter than it really is.
c.
fainter and cooler than it really is.
d.
fainter and hotter than it really is.
e.
unchanged in brightness or apparent color.
 

168. 

The lowest mass object that can initiate thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen has a mass of about
a.
1 Mstudyguide1-11_files/i1710000.jpg.
b.
60 Mstudyguide1-11_files/i1710001.jpg.
c.
0.5 Mstudyguide1-11_files/i1710002.jpg.
d.
0.08 Mstudyguide1-11_files/i1710003.jpg.
e.
0.001 Mstudyguide1-11_files/i1710004.jpg.
 

169. 

Absorption lines due to the interstellar medium indicate that some components of the interstellar medium are cold and of a very low density because
a.
the lines are blue shifted.
b.
the lines are red shifted.
c.
the lines are extremely broad.
d.
the lines are extremely narrow.
e.
the lines are much darker than the stellar lines.
 

170. 

Absorption lines due to interstellar gas
a.
are wider than the lines from stars because the gas is hotter than most stars.
b.
are more narrow than the lines from stars because the gas has a lower pressure than stars.
c.
indicate that the interstellar medium contains dust.
d.
indicate that the interstellar medium is expanding away from the sun.
e.
none of the above
 

171. 

Which of the following nuclear fuels does a one solar mass star use over the course of its entire evolution?
a.
hydrogen
b.
hydrogen and helium
c.
hydrogen, helium and carbon
d.
hydrogen, helium, carbon, and neon
e.
hydrogen, helium, carbon, neon, and oxygen.
 

172. 

The lowest-mass stars cannot become giants because
a.
they do not contain helium.
b.
they rotate too slowly.
c.
they cannot heat their centers hot enough.
d.
they contain strong magnetic fields.
e.
they never use up their hydrogen.
 

173. 

A planetary nebula
a.
produces an absorption spectrum.
b.
produces an emission spectrum.
c.
is contracting to form planets.
d.
is contracting to form a star.
e.
is the result of carbon detonation in a 1 Mstudyguide1-11_files/i1760000.jpg star.
 

174. 

If the theory that novae occur in close binary systems is correct, then novae should
a.
produce synchrotron radiation.
b.
occur in regions of star formation.
c.
not occur in old star clusters.
d.
all be visual binaries.
e.
repeat after some interval.
 

175. 

As a white dwarf cools its radius will not change because
a.
pressure due to nuclear reactions in a shell just below the surface keeps it from collapsing.
b.
pressure does not depend on temperature for a white dwarf because the electrons are degenerate.
c.
pressure does not depend on temperature because the white dwarf is too hot.
d.
pressure does not depend on temperature because the star has exhausted all its nuclear fuels.
e.
material accreting onto it from a companion maintains a constant radius.
 

176. 

Pulsars are believed to slow down because
a.
they are converting energy of rotation into radiation.
b.
they are dragging companions stars around in their magnetic field.
c.
of friction with the interstellar medium.
d.
of conservation of angular momentum.
e.
their mass is decreasing.
 

177. 

The event horizon
a.
is believed to be a singularity.
b.
is a crystalline layer.
c.
has a radius equal to the Schwarzschild radius.
d.
marks the inner boundary of a planetary nebula.
e.
is located at the point where synchrotron radiation is created around a pulsar.
 

178. 

A pulsar requires that a neutron star

I.
rotate rapidly.
II.
have a radius of at least 10 km.
III.
have a strong magnetic field.
IV.
rotate on an axis that is different from the axis of the magnetic field.
a.
I & III
b.
I & IV
c.
II, III, & IV
d.
I, III, & IV
e.
I, II, III, & IV
 

179. 

None of the pulsars emit pulses of visible light because
a.
pulsars are to hot to emit visible light.
b.
pulsars contain black holes that won't let visible light escape.
c.
the gravitational field of a pulsar is so great that the visible light emitted is red shifted.
d.
pulsars are too far away for the visible light to be bright enough to be detected at Earth.
e.
A few pulsars do emit visible light pulses.
 

180. 

If the inner accretion disk around a black hole has a temperature of 106 K, at what wavelength will it radiate the most energy?
a.
106 nm
b.
3 nm
c.
3 x 106 nm
d.
1 nm
e.
3 x 1011 nm
 



 
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